When I was solving some differential equations, I asked myself the following: Is there a function has the following: $$y'=y+1$$ $$y''=y+1$$ $$y'''=y+1$$ $$......$$ $$......$$
If the initial value is $$y(0)=1$$
When I was solving some differential equations, I asked myself the following: Is there a function has the following: $$y'=y+1$$ $$y''=y+1$$ $$y'''=y+1$$ $$......$$ $$......$$
If the initial value is $$y(0)=1$$
On
The solution to $$ y' = y + 1,\ y(0)=1$$ is $y = 2e^x -1$ which can be found from your method of choice for first-order non-homogeneous ODEs. Now let's see what the derivatives look like
$$y' = 2e^x$$
$$y'' = 2e^x$$
$$y''' = 2e^x$$
We can clearly see $y^{(k+1)} = y^{(k)}\ \forall k\in\mathbb{Z},k\geq1 $. Therefor all $n$th-derivatives of $y$ are equal by induction, and as $y'$ satisfies the conditions so do all $y^{(k)}$.
Edit:
If you're interested, here's how you could solve this using annihilators, my method of choice for simple problems like this (I prefer Laplace for harder ones). First re-arrange the equation to say:
$$y'-y=1$$
We find the general solution, $y_c$ by setting the RHS to $0$:
$$y_c'-y_c = 0$$
For which we assume $y_c = Ce^{mx} \Rightarrow mCe^{mx}-Ce^{mx} = 0 \Rightarrow m = 1$ so therefor $y_c = Ce^x$. We need to find $y_p$ now.
As $D$ annihilates $1$, assume $y_p = a$. Then $y' = 0$ and thus $0 - a = 1$ so $a=-1$. All together we have $y = Ce^x-1$. Further
$$y(0) = Ce^0 - 1 = 1 \Rightarrow C = 2 \therefore y= 2e^x -1$$
On
All your differential equations after the first one are implied by the first equation. If $y'=y+1$ then differentiation of it gives $y''=y'$ and further differentiation gives the successive equations. So it is really just about solving the first equation with the given initial value, and this you can do.
Well you have that $$y'=y''=y^{(3)}\cdots$$ and the only function that is a derivative of itself is $ae^{x}$ for some $a$ so $y'=ae^x$ and $$y=y'-1=ae^x-1$$ Since $y(0)=1$ we have that $$y(0)=ae^0-1=a-1=1$$ so $a=2$ hence our function is $\boxed{y(x)=2e^x-1}$