Consider the following equation:
$$ 2 = \cos(x) + \cos(\sqrt{2}x) $$
So, I'm reading this proof which says that the equation has a solution iff
$$ x=0 \mod{2\pi} \quad \wedge \quad \sqrt{x}=0 \mod {2\pi} $$
Now, why is it the only option?
Consider the following equation:
$$ 2 = \cos(x) + \cos(\sqrt{2}x) $$
So, I'm reading this proof which says that the equation has a solution iff
$$ x=0 \mod{2\pi} \quad \wedge \quad \sqrt{x}=0 \mod {2\pi} $$
Now, why is it the only option?
As for real $y,\cos y\le1$
We need $\displaystyle\cos x=\cos(\sqrt2x)=1$
$\displaystyle\cos x=1\implies x=2m\pi $ where $m$ is any integer
and $\sqrt2x=2n\pi$ where $n$ is any integer
If $mn\ne0, \frac x{\sqrt2x}=\frac mn\iff \frac mn=\frac1{\sqrt2}$ which is impossible
Hence, $m,n$ must be zero