Solve:
$ (3xy-2ay^2)dx + (x^2-2axy)dy = 0 $
This is a homogeneous differential equation. So why can't I solve it in the following manner?
Solve:
$ (3xy-2ay^2)dx + (x^2-2axy)dy = 0 $
This is a homogeneous differential equation. So why can't I solve it in the following manner?
The given differential equation is
$$(3xy−2ay^2)dx+(x^2−2axy)dy=0\tag{1}$$
where
$$M=3xy−2ay^2,~N=x^2−2axy$$
therefore
$$\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}=3x−4ay,~\frac{\partial N}{\partial x}=2x−2ay$$
as $\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}\neq \frac{\partial N}{\partial x}$, the differential equation is not exact. However, we can proceed by
$$\frac{\frac{\partial M}{\partial y} - \frac{\partial N}{\partial x}}{N}=\frac{3x−4ay-2x+2ay}{x^2−2axy}=\frac{x-2ay}{x(x-2ay)}=\frac{1}{x}=f(x)$$
so that our integrating factor is
$$\text{I.F.}=\text{exp}\left(\int f(x)dx\right)=\text{exp}\left(\int \frac{1}{x} dx\right)=x$$
if we then multiply $(1)$ by our integrating factor of $x$
$$(3x^2y−2axy^2)dx+(x^3−2ax^2y)dy=0\tag{2}$$
we now see that $(2)$ is exact since
$$M=3x^2y−2axy^2,~N=x^3−2ax^2y$$
hence
$$\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}=3x^2−4axy,~\frac{\partial N}{\partial x}=3x^2−4axy$$
and $\frac{\partial M}{\partial y}= \frac{\partial N}{\partial x}$, which can be solved as an exact differential equation. Your approach doesn't work since
$$\text{I.F.}=\frac{1}{M_x+N_y}$$
provided $M_x+N_y$ consists of only one term. When you simplify, you have more than one term.