Solve $e^{-x}=\ln(1/x)$

83 Views Asked by At

Can someone help me solve this

$$e^{-x}=\ln(1/x)$$

I think these two functions are inverses of each other and since they both meet the line $y=x$ they intersect

But I'm not able to simplify the equality above to find their point of intersection

Help me, please.

3

There are 3 best solutions below

4
On

Alpha gives a numeric solution $x \approx 0.56714$ I don't think it surprising that it did not give an analytic result. This looks like an equation that will not yield to algebra.

1
On

There is no analytical solution to this equation even using special functions. Then you will need some numerical method for finding the zero of function $$f(x)=e^{-x}+\log(x)$$ Its derivative $$f'(x)=-e^{-x}+\frac 1x$$ cancels when $x=-W(-1)$ which is a complex number; so, $f'(x)>0 $and there is only one root.

By inspection, $f(1)=\frac 1e >0$. So, using Newton method with $x_0=1$ will give the following iterates $$\left( \begin{array}{cc} n & x_n \\ 0 & 1.0000000000 \\ 1 & 0.4180232931 \\ 2 & 0.5413727558 \\ 3 & 0.5664266698 \\ 4 & 0.5671427445 \\ 5 & 0.5671432904 \end{array} \right)$$

We could have generated a better estimate of the starting point building first the simplest Padé approximant at $x=1$ $$f(x) \simeq \frac{\frac{1}{e}+\frac{(2 e-1) }{2 e}(x-1)}{1+\frac{1}{2}(x-1)}$$ giving $x_0=\frac{2 e-3}{2 e-1}\approx 0.549201$.

Continuing with $[1,n]$ Padé approximants, it will be closer and closer to the solution as shown below $$\left( \begin{array}{ccc} 1 & \frac{-3+2 e}{-1+2 e} & 0.5492006529 \\ 2 & \frac{-8+34 e-36 e^2+12 e^3}{-2+16 e-24 e^2+12 e^3} & 0.5651368901 \\ 3 & \frac{30-300 e+636 e^2-504 e^3+144 e^4}{6-108 e+348 e^2-360 e^3+144 e^4} & 0.5670287743 \\ 4 & \frac{-144+3216 e-12480 e^2+18000 e^3-11520 e^4+2880 e^5}{-24+1056 e-5520 e^2+10800 e^3-8640 e^4+2880 e^5} & 0.5671134681 \end{array} \right)$$

0
On

As you observed, the functions $f(x)=e^{-x}$ and $g(x)=\log(1/x)$ are inverses. If $f(x)$ intersects $y=x$ at $a$ then we have $f(a)=a$. Applying $g$ we get $a=g(a)$. Then $f(a)=g(a)$ and $a$ is a solution for the equation. So we have $a = f(a) = e^{-a}$, which is equivalent to $a e^a = 1$. This is precisely the equation that is solved by the Lambert $W$ function. Apply $W$ to get $a = W(1)$