Solve Intergrals Using Inverse Fourier Transform

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a)Find f(x), the insverse fourier transform of F(ω)

b) Does the fourier transform of f(x) equal to F(ω)?

c)use your answers to calculate these Integrals: enter image description here

if I'm not mistaken the answer to a is:

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as to b,c i not sure. please help!

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$a)$ We have $$2\pi f\left(x\right) =\int_{\mathbb{R}}F\left(\omega\right)e^{i\omega x}\mathrm{d}\omega =\intop_{\omega=-L}^{L}\cos\left(a\omega\right)e^{i\omega x}\mathrm{d}\omega =\frac{1}{2}\left(\intop_{\omega=-L}^{L}e^{i\left(x+a\right)\omega}\mathrm{d}\omega+\intop_{\omega=-L}^{L}e^{i\left(x-a\right)\omega}\mathrm{d}\omega\right)$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}\left(\frac{e^{i\left(x+a\right)L}-e^{-i\left(x+a\right)L}}{i\left(x+a\right)}+\frac{e^{i\left(x-a\right)L}-e^{-i\left(x-a\right)L}}{i\left(x-a\right)}\right) =\frac{\sin\left(\left(x+a\right)L\right)}{x+a}+\frac{\sin\left(\left(x-a\right)L\right)}{x-a}$$ $$=\frac{\left(x-a\right)\sin\left(\left(x+a\right)L\right)+\left(x+a\right)\sin\left(\left(x-a\right)L\right)}{x^2-a^2}$$ $$=\frac{x\left(\sin\left(\left(x+a\right)L\right)+\sin\left(\left(x-a\right)L\right)\right)+a\left(\sin\left(\left(x-a\right)L\right)-\sin\left(\left(x+a\right)L\right)\right)}{x^2-a^2}$$ $$=\frac{2x\sin\left(Lx\right)\cos\left(aL\right)}{x^2-a^2} +\frac{2a\sin\left(aL\right)\cos\left(Lx\right)}{x^2-a^2}$$ where we used for the last equality the trigonometric relations $$\sin\left(a\right)-\sin\left(b\right) =2\sin\left(\frac{a-b}{2}\right)\cos\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right),$$ $$\sin\left(a\right)+\sin\left(b\right) =2\sin\left(\frac{a+b}{2}\right)\cos\left(\frac{a-b}{2}\right).$$

$b)$ We have $$\int_{\mathbb{R}}|F\left(\omega\right)|^2\mathrm{d}\omega =\intop_{\omega=-L}^{L}\cos^2\left(a\omega\right)\mathrm{d}\omega =\intop_{\omega=-L}^{L}\frac{1+\cos\left(2a\omega\right)}{2}\mathrm{d}\omega =L+\frac{\sin\left(2aL\right)}{2a}<+\infty$$ hence $F\in\mathcal{L}^2\left(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B}\left(\mathbb{R}\right),\lambda\right)$, where $\mathcal{B}\left(\mathbb{R}\right)$ is the Borel's $\sigma$-algebra on $\mathbb{R}$ and $\lambda$ is the Lebesgue's measure on $\mathbb{R}$. Since the Fourier tansformation is one-to-one on $\mathcal{L}^2\left(\mathbb{R},\mathcal{B}\left(\mathbb{R}\right),\lambda\right)$, we deduce that the Fourier transform of $f$ is $F$.

$c)$ For $L=\pi/a$, we have $$f\left(x\right)=-\frac{x\sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{a}\right)}{\pi\left(x^2-a^2\right)}$$ whence $$\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{x\sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{a}\right)\cos\left(\omega x\right)}{x^2-a^2}\mathrm{d}x =\Re\int_{\mathbb{R}}\frac{x\sin\left(\frac{\pi x}{a}\right)}{x^2-a^2}e^{-i\omega x}\mathrm{d}x =-\pi\Re\int_{\mathbb{R}}f\left(x\right)e^{-i\omega x}\mathrm{d}x$$ $$=-\pi\Re F\left(\omega\right)=-\pi\cos\left(a\omega\right)\mathfrak{1}_{_{\left[-\frac{\pi}{a},\frac{\pi}{a}\right]}}\left(\omega\right)$$ where $\mathfrak{1}_{_{\left[-\frac{\pi}{a},\frac{\pi}{a}\right]}}$ is the constant function equals to $1$ on $\left[-\frac{\pi}{a},\frac{\pi}{a}\right]$ and zero elsewhere.

For the second integral, do the same with $L=\pi/\left(2a\right)$.