Solve the equation $$ \log_2(9x+2)=\log_3(16x+3). $$ It is easy to see that $x=0$ is a solution but how to prove that there are no more solutions?
My idea was prove that the function $f(x)=\log_2(9x+2)-\log_3(16x+3)$ is monotone for $x \geq 0$. We have $$ f'(x)=\frac9{ \left( 9\,x+2 \right) \ln \left( 2 \right) }- \frac{16}{ \left( 16\,x+3 \right) \ln \left( 3 \right) }, $$ and the inequality $f'(x)>0$ has the solution $$ \left( -2/9, -3/16 \right) \cup \left( a ,\infty \right), $$ where $$a=-{\frac {1}{144}}\,{\frac {32\,\ln \left( 2 \right) -27\,\ln \left( 3 \right) }{\ln \left( 2 \right) -\ln \left( 3 \right) }}$$ so $f'(x)>0$ for $x>0$. Thus $f(x)$ is there monotone and $f(x)=0$ has only one solution for $x \geq 0$.
My question Is there a solution without using the derivative?
If you are working with polynomials, it is relatively simple to determine whether or not you have found all of the solutions to an equation: once the number of solutions (counting multiplicity) is equal to the degree of the polynomial, you are done. Similar arguments can be generalized to equations involving rational functions. Unfortunately, once you get into transcendental functions (such as functions involving logarithms), you are almost certainly going to have to start using the tools of calculus.
For the problem you give, the basic approach is correct. There does seem to be one small error / bit of pedantry that should probably be mentioned: $\log(t)$ is typically only defined for $t > 0$, hence the first thing that I would do is ensure that I am working in the correct domain. We have $$ 9x+2 > 0 \iff x > -\frac{2}{9} \qquad\text{and}\qquad 16x + 3 > 0 \iff x > -\frac{3}{16}. $$ Combining these, we know a priori that $$x > -\frac{3}{16},$$ hence we don't even need to consider values of $x$ smaller than this.
The next bit of your argument looks fine: you note that if we define $$ f(x) := \log_2(9x+2) = \log_3(16x+3), $$ then $f'(x) > 0$ on the set $$ \left( -2/9, -3/16 \right) \cup \left( a ,\infty \right) $$ where $$a=-\frac1{144}\,\frac {27\,\ln \left( 3 \right)-32\,\ln \left( 2 \right) }{\ln \left( 3 \right) -\ln \left( 2 \right) }\approx-0.128$$ (I am assuming that your arithmetic is correct here—it seems reasonable). Note that the first interval is irrelevant because it is not in the domain of $f$, hence we can ignore it. It then follows from the intermediate value theorem that there can be at most one solution in the second interval (indeed, $x=0$ is that solution).
By a similar argument, $f$ is decreasing on the interval $$ \left( -3/16, a \right), $$ thus there can be at most one solution in that interval. Since $x=0$ solves the original equation and $f$ is increasing on an interval to the left of zero, we know that there is some $x' < 0$ such that $f(x') < 0$. We can also determine (using another tool that is generally introduced in calculus classes) that $$ \lim_{x\to-3/16} f(x) = +\infty. $$ By the intermediate value theorem, there must be another solution in this interval (indeed, $-\frac{1}{6}$ gets the job done). At this point, we have exhausted the domain of $f$, hence these are the only solutions.
Short version: When working with transcendental functions, it is unlikely that you will be able to say very much (in general) without resorting to results from calculus. These kinds of functions are, in some fundamental ways, really only understandable in the framework provided by limits, continuity, and the derivative.