I am trying to find
$$\int_{0}^{\infty} {\frac{\ln(x)}{(x+1)^3}}dx$$
Using the residue formula.
I am mainly having a hard time finding a contour that works, since we must include the pole of order three at $x=-1$.
I have tried a partial, indented circle that goes from $\theta = 0$ to $4\pi/3$ and a $3/4$ circle as well, but in both cases, if $\gamma_3(t) = te^{i\theta}, t \in (R,0)$ for a fixed $\theta$ in the third quadrant, we are left with the real part of the integral, as well as a complex integral that is just as difficult to solve.
The residue I calculated is:
$$res_{-1}f(z) = \lim_{z \rightarrow -1}\frac{1}{3!} \frac{d^2}{dz^2} (z+1)^3 \frac{\ln{z}}{(1+z)^3}$$ $$=\frac{1}{2}* \frac{-1}{-1^2} = \frac{-1}{2}$$
So that means the entire complex integral should be $2\pi i* \frac{-1}{2} = -\pi i$...
I had another idea for a contour that catches the pole: we have
$$\gamma_1(t) = t, t \in (\epsilon, R)$$ $$\gamma_2(t) = Re^{it}, t\in (0, \pi/2)$$ $$\gamma_3(t) = e^{it} -1, t \in (\pi, 2\pi - \epsilon)$$ $$\gamma_4(t) = $$ the little tiny circle to complete the contour.
But this one, for $\gamma_3$ gives us a weird integral:
$$\int_{\pi}^{2\pi - \epsilon}\frac{\ln{e^{it} - 1}}{(e^{it} - 1 +1)^3}(ie^{it})$$
Which looks a little better, but I'm not sure how to hande the log function in this case, and it doesn't look promising. Any help would be appreciated.
The contour we need to use for this question is a basic keyhole contour
First, parametrize about the contour in four different areas. Let the smaller circle have a radius of $\epsilon$ and the larger circle have a radius of $R$. Furthermore, denote the arcs of the larger circle and smaller circle as $\Gamma_R$ and $\gamma_{\epsilon}$ respectively. Considering the function
$$f(z)=\frac {1}{(z+1)^3}$$
We have
$$\begin{multline}\oint\limits_{\mathrm C}dz\, f(z)\log^2z=\int\limits_{\epsilon}^{R}dx\, f(x)\log^2x+\int\limits_{\Gamma_{R}}dz\, f(z)\log^2z\\-\int\limits_{\epsilon}^{R}dx\, f(x)(\log|x|+2\pi i)^2+\int\limits_{\gamma_{\epsilon}}dz\, f(z)\log^2z\end{multline}$$
As $R\to\infty$ and $\epsilon\to0$, the integrals around the arc vanish leaving us with
$$\oint\limits_{\mathrm C}dz\, f(z)\log^2z=-4\pi i\int\limits_0^{\infty}dx\, f(x)\log x+4\pi^2\int\limits_0^{\infty}dx\, f(x)$$
All you have to do left is calculate the residue, multiply that by $2\pi i$, and divide the imaginary part by $-4\pi$ to get the answer to your integral.
I'll leave the rest of the work up to you.