Question:
Solve $y'(t)=\operatorname{sin}(t)+\int_0^t y(x)\operatorname{cos}(t-x)dx$ such that $y(0)=0$
My try:
I applied Laplace transform on both sides of the equation.
$
sL\{y(t)\} = \frac{1}{s^2+1}+L\{cos(t)*y(t)\} \implies sL\{y(t)\}=\frac{1}{s^2+1}+L\{cos(t)\}\times L\{y(t)\} $
$\implies L\{y(t)\} = \frac{s^2-1}{(s^3-s-1)(s^2+1)} $ (*)
Now, I'm stuck on applying the inverse Laplace transform on (*) to find $y(t)$.
Any idea?
$sL\{y(t)\} = \frac{1}{s^2+1}+L\{cos(t)*y(t)\} $
$sL\{y(t)\} = \frac{1}{s^2+1}+L\{y(t)\}*\frac s {s^2+1} $
$L\{y(t)\}(s- \frac s {s^2+1})= \frac{1}{s^2+1}$
Here you made a mistake I guess
$L\{y(t)\}( \frac {s^3-s+s} {s^2+1})= \frac{1}{s^2+1} $
$L\{y(t)\}= \frac{1}{s^3} $