The question is defined as follows:
$$\frac{(x!)^3}{x}-1=3455$$
I first did the basics which was getting rid of the 1 onto the left and getting rid of the $x$, then I factorised both sides to get an expression as seen below:
$$x!=3456^{1/3}\cdot x^{1/3}$$
$$x(x-1)!=x\cdot 3456^{1/3}\cdot x^{-2/3}$$
$$3456^{1/3}/(x-1)!=x^{2/3}$$
I then got rid of the power of x and tried using an iterative process, however it got messy because negative integers and square roots don’t go well together.
So I wanted to know: can you solve this question without trial and error? And if so, please can you exemplify your justification in mathematical notation?
We have $3456=2^7\cdot 3^3$. So, you have
$$(x!)^3=3456x=2^7\cdot 3^3\cdot x.$$
In particular, no prime $>3$ can divide $x!$, and so $x\leq 4$. You also need $2^7 \cdot 3^3 \cdot x$ to be a cube, so $2x$ should be a cube, which means $x=4$. Now you can just test it and it works! so you're done.