After the rewrite of the question...
$$
\sum_{i=0}^n\frac{1}{i!(n-i)!}\left(\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^i\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^{n-i}
$$
can be rewritten as
$$
\frac{1}{n!}\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}\left(\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^i\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^{n-i}.
$$
Then, by the binomial theorem, this is
$$
\frac{1}{n!}\left[\frac{1}{2^n}+\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)\right]^n=\frac{1}{n!}
$$
After the rewrite of the question... $$ \sum_{i=0}^n\frac{1}{i!(n-i)!}\left(\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^i\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^{n-i} $$ can be rewritten as $$ \frac{1}{n!}\sum_{i=0}^n\binom{n}{i}\left(\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^i\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)^{n-i}. $$ Then, by the binomial theorem, this is $$ \frac{1}{n!}\left[\frac{1}{2^n}+\left(1-\frac{1}{2^n}\right)\right]^n=\frac{1}{n!} $$