Can anybody solve this recurrence relation?
$$\begin{align} a_1 &= p \\ b_1 &= 1 \\[4pt] a_{n+1} &=(1-\alpha b_n)a_n\\ b_{n+1} &=(1-\beta+\alpha a_n)b_n \end{align}$$
I think the fact that $a$ and $b$ are interrelated makes the problem extremely hard (or not). If you are interested please feel free to answer :-)
Initial remark: a particular case is treated here.
The first thing to do for such systems is to look for possible limits.
By continuity, if $\lim_{n\to +\infty}(a_n;b_n)=(a;b)$, we must have
$$\begin{cases}a&=&(1- \alpha b)a\\b&=&(1-\beta+\alpha a)b\end{cases} \iff \begin{cases}ab &=&0\\b(\alpha a-\beta)&=&0\end{cases}$$
(if we assume $\alpha \ne 0$).
As a consequence, if there is a limit $(a,b)$, necessarily, we must have $b=0$.
The fact that convergence occurs towards this type of solution is attested by simulation. See on the figure below the result of different simulations in the $(a;b)$ coordinate's plane.
Now that you have a neat idea of what happens, can you take it from here in a rigorous way ?
Fig. 1: Case $\alpha=0.1$ and $\beta=0.3$ for different values of $p$. For example the leftmost broken line begins at $(a_1;b_1)=(p;1)=(1/4;1)$ and connects the different $(a_n;b_n)$ issued from this initial seed with limit $(a,0)$. One notes a "backtracking" of the limit when $p>3$.
Please note that for different combinations, for example for $p=3, \ \alpha=0.7, \beta=0.3$ the convergence is towards $(a;b)=(0;0)$.
If you are interested in the future to write a simulation program, here is the one I have created for generating Fig. 1 (language: Matlab):