I'm having some trouble understanding the 3rd lemma in Chapter 5 (page 101 for the 3rd edition) of Spivak's Calculus, that states:
If $\ y_{0} \neq 0 $ and $\ |y-y_{0}| < min(\frac{|y_{0}|}{2}, \frac{\epsilon|y_{0}|^2}{2}) $
then
$\ y \neq 0 $ and $\ \left |\frac{1}{y}-\frac{1}{y_{0}} \right | < \epsilon $
So naturally I am not understanding the proof either. I don't understand why he uses $\ |y-y_{0}| $ instead of $\ |x-x_{0}| $ -- EDIT I think I figured what he means with that, however I am not sure as to why y instead of x; regardless, am I correct in thinking of $\ y $ as a separate function such as $\ f(x) $ and $\ y_{0} $ as the limit of said function? -- and whether I am right in assuming for the proof that the reason he uses $\ \frac{|y_{0}|}{2} $ as the $ \min $ is because $\ y_{0}^2 $ >> $\ y_{0} $ regardless of the value of $\ \epsilon $.
Can anyone help me out?
Answering so as to have a nice excuse to flip through Spivak's book :).
To your first question, no, you are not correct in thinking that $y=f(x)$. While I guess this notation is common e.g. in differential equation material you might have seen, here $y_0$ is an arbitrary number $\neq 0$ and so is $y$. Of course he could have named these $x_0$, $x$ or $z_0, z$ or in any other imaginable way. So if it makes it easier for you just imagine $x_0$ and $x$ instead of $y_0$ and $y$. The fact that $y$ is not a function of $x$ should become clearer from the other statement in the same Lemma, where he shows that $|xy-x_0y_0| < \varepsilon$, for $x,y$ in appropriate neighborhoods of $x_0$ and $y_0$ respectively.
To your second question, here you are also wrong. In fact you can easily check that $y_0^2 > y_0$ is a wrong statement (and $\varepsilon$ does not even play any role here). I really think you should recheck the definition of the limit to understand what is happening. Here Spivak basically shows that $ \lim_{y\to y_0} \frac{1}{y} = \frac{1}{y_0}$, assuming $y_0 \neq 0$. This means that given $\varepsilon > 0$ he has to find $\delta > 0$ such that $\big\vert\frac{1}{y} - \frac{1}{y_0}\big\vert < \varepsilon$ for all $y$ with $|y-y_0| < \delta$. For fixed $\varepsilon > 0$ he then goes on to choose:
$$\delta = \min\left(\frac{|y_{0}|}{2}, \frac{\varepsilon|y_{0}|^2}{2}\right)$$
Notice first that $\delta > 0$ (why?) and that by the definition of $\delta$ you have that:
1) $\delta \leq \frac{|y_{0}|}{2}$
2) $\delta \leq \frac{\varepsilon|y_{0}|^2}{2}$
The first equation is needed in the first part of his proof, while the second in the final step of the proof, which essentially shows that for this choice of $\delta>0$ it holds that $\big\vert\frac{1}{y} - \frac{1}{y_0}\big\vert < \varepsilon$ for all $y$ in the $\delta$-neighborhood of $y_0$.
Hope this helps.