Is it true that
$\int_a^b \int_c^d f(x)g(y)dydx = \int_a^b f(x)dx \cdot \int_c^dg(y)dy $
My intuition says it is true, but I also have the feeling that I am missing something, but I cannot prove it. In my application $a,b,c,d$ are length variables. $f(x)$ and $g(y)$ are sinusoidal functions.
I would like to prove the general case, can somebody help me out?
Note that for any integrable $f \colon \def\R{\mathbb R}\R \to \R$ and any $\zeta \in \R$ we have $$ \int_\R \zeta f(x)\, dx = \zeta \int_\R f(x) \, dx $$ Now note that with $\zeta := \int_\R f(y)\, dy$ which depends on $f$, but since $f$ is a constant this gives $$ \int_\R \left(\int_\R f(y)\, dy\right)\, f(x)\, dx = \int_\R f(y)\, dy \cdot \int_\R f(x)\, dx $$ Now, for every fixed $x \in \R$, just apply the above result, now for $\zeta = f(x)$ (not dependent on $y$): $$ \left(\int_\R f(y)\, dy\right)\, f(x) = \int_\R f(x)f(y)\, dy $$ Thus $$ \int_\R \int_\R f(y)f(x)\, dy\, dx = \int_\R f(y)\, dy \cdot \int_\R f(x)\, dx $$