So the problem is to write $\frac{1}{n}=\sum_{1}^{m}\frac{1}{a_{k}}$ for $a_{k}\in \mathbb{N}$ (distinct if it is too easy).
The only proof I've seen is with $\frac{1}{n}=\frac{1}{n+1}+\frac{1}{n(n+1)}$.
Do you know any other proofs or any other algorithms?
I am trying to play with Taylor expansion.
Thanks
Assuming you mean that $m$ is fixed, here is a particular case: the Erdos-Strauss conjecture says that:
$$\frac{4}{n}=\frac{1}{x}+\frac{1}{y}+\frac{1}{z}$$
has a solution for each $n\geq 0$, with $x,y,z\in\mathbb{N}$. So for $m=3$, it is safe to say that this problem beyond the reach of current mathematics. A special case of this is known when $n\equiv 2\pmod 3$:
$$\frac{4}{n}=\frac{1}{n}+\frac{1}{(n-2)/3+1}+\frac{1}{n((n-2)/3+1},$$
but for $m\equiv 1\pmod{3}$, in particular $n=4k$ with $k\not\equiv 1\pmod{3}$, there is nothing known.
For general $m$, one can sometimes get lucky by employing the greedy algorithm for Egyptian fractions.