I am reading a text in which the following is claimed to be a well-known result:
Let $(y_j)_{j=1}^\infty$ be a square-summable sequence of real numbers, that is $$ \sum_{j=1}^\infty y_j^2<\infty. $$ Then the sequence of the averages $(n^{-1}\sum_{j=1}^n y_j)_{j=1}^\infty$ is also square-summable, that is $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(n^{-1}\sum_{j=1}^n y_j\right)^2<\infty. $$
I tried using Cauchy-Schwarz to verify this but without success:
\begin{align*} \sum_{n=1}^\infty \left(n^{-1}\sum_{j=1}^n y_j\right)^2 &= \sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-2}\left(\sum_{j=1}^n y_j\right)^2 \le \sum_{n=1}^\infty n^{-2}\sum_{j=1}^n y_j^2 \sum_{j=1}^n 1^2 \\ &= \sum_{n=1}^\infty \sum_{j=1}^n \frac{y_j^2}{n} = \sum_{j=1}^\infty y_j^2 \sum_{n=j}^\infty \frac{1}{n} = \infty. \end{align*} (The last equality holds unless all $y_j$ are zero.)
By Hardy's inequality,$$ \sum_{n = 1}^∞ \left( \frac{1}{n} \sum_{k = 1}^n a_k \right)^2 \leqslant 4 \sum_{n = 1}^∞ a_n^2 < +∞. $$