Many proofs of the fact that the product of compact spaces use the tube lemma, and therefore start somewhat like this: Let $X$ and $Y$ be compact spaces. Then for each $x\in X$, $\{x\}\times Y$ can be covered by finitely many open sets. Why is this true? I understand intuitively but am having a hard time rigorously justifying this.
2026-04-08 05:50:27.1775627427
Step in proof that product of compact spaces is compact
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Consider how the topology of $\{x\}\times Y$ is defined, and you will see that $f(p)=(x,p)$, for $p\in Y,$ is a homeomorphism from $Y$ to $\{x\}\times Y.$ Compactness is a topological property, that is, it is preserved by homeomorphism. And $Y$ is compact, so $\{x\}\times Y$ is compact.