I'm going through the proof of Stirling's Formula and I'm not quite sure of the following line:
Since the log function is increasing on $(0,\infty)$, we get
$\int_{n-1}^n \log(x)dx < \log(n) < \int_n^{n+1} \log(x)dx$
The argument might be trivial, but I'm quite seeing it. I tried solving both the left and right hand sides of the inequalities and for the left side I get $$\log\frac{n^n}{(n-1)^{n-1}} - 1$$
I tried showing by induction that $\displaystyle\frac{n^n}{(n-1)^{n-1}} \le n$ but it fails for $n=2$. Any suggestions?
Hint: Use the mean-value theorem for integrals $\int_a^b f(x) dx = f(c)(b-a)$ along with the fact that $\log$ is increasing.