While reading about combinatorial mathematics, I found this article about the Stirling transform which caught my attention.
So, if I wanted to find the Stirling transform of, for instance, $(k-1)!$, I'd have to solve this sum (using the explicit formula for the Stirling number of the second kind): $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}\left(\frac{1}{k!}\sum_{j=0}^{k}(-1)^{k-j}\binom{k}{j}j^n(k-1)!\right)$$
It looks complicated. Is it even possible to find the Stirling transform directly from this sum? I don't know how to start. Mathematica gives the answer $(-1)^n\operatorname{Li}_{1-n}(2)$. I'd really like to know how to arrive at that result.
Any ideas or hints will be appreciated.
Note: The double sum expression stated in OPs question is already a perfectly valid representation of the Stirling transform of the sequence $(a_n)_{n\geq 1}=\left((n-1)!\right)_{n\geq 1}$ with respect to its definition.
So, here we are looking for a different representation of the Stirling transform of $(a_n)_{n\geq 1}$ which could be regarded as more convenient or simpler according to our needs. Regrettably, a considerable simplification, e.g. reducing a sum don't presumably exist. But we establish the connection of OPs Stirling transform with the Polylogarithm $\operatorname{Li}_{1-n}(2)$ provided by Mathematica.
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