stochastic calculus confusion

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Let $I_t$ be your investment(in number of units) in a stock at time t and it depends on the value of the stock S in the following way:

$I_t = f(S_t)$

In this case, change in your wealth during an infinitesimal interval would be given by:

$dX_t = f(S_t)dS_t$

If $S_t$ is deterministic and non-stochastic:

$X_T − X_0 = \int_{S_0}^{S_T} f(S_t) dS_t$

$= F(S_T)-F(S_0)$

where

$ F(S) = \int_a^S f(x)dx .$ for whatever a is chosen

If however, $S_t$ is stochastic with

$dS_t = S_t × (μ_t dt + σ_t dW_t)$

then

$X_T − X_0 = F(S_T)-F(S_0) −0.5 \int_0^T f'(S_t) S_t^2 σ_t^2 dt$

My confusion is regarding the second part when S is stochastic. Is there a way to prove the stochastic case?

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The expression comes from Ito's lemma. Let $F(S) = \int_a^S f(x)dx$ so that $F'(S) = f(S).$ Then if $dS = \mu S dt + \sigma S dS,$ and we let $Y_t=F(S_t),$ Ito's lemma gives $$ dY = F'(S)dS + \frac{1}{2}F''(S)\sigma^2 S^2dt \\= f(S)dS + \frac{1}{2}f'(S)\sigma^2S^2dt\\= dX + \frac{1}{2}f'(S)\sigma^2S^2 dt.$$

Integrating gives $$Y_T-Y_0 = X_T-X_0 +\frac{1}{2}\int_0^T f'(S_t)\sigma^2 S_t^2 dt.$$ Plugging in $Y_T-Y_0 = F(S_T)-F(S_0)$ and rearranging gives your expression.