Strange consistency proof based on countability

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Let $\sigma(x)$ be a formula (in one free variable $x$) in the language of set theory such that $\mathsf{ZFC} \models \forall x (x \text{ countable } \Rightarrow \sigma(x))$. (E.g., $\sigma(x) =$ "$x$ is countable".)

Let $V$ be a model of $\mathsf{ZFC}$ and let $M \in V$. We add to the language of set theory a constant symbol $c$ whose interpretation in $V$ should be $M$. Then, in this new language, we have a sentence $\sigma(c)$ that says, when interpretated in $V$, that $M$ satisfies $\sigma$.

By forcing, we find a generic extension $V[G]$ of $V$ in which $M$ is countable, see for instance this post. Hence $V[G] \models \mathsf{ZFC} \cup {\sigma(c)}$.

I have three questions:

(1) Is it true from that $\mathsf{ZFC} \models \sigma(M)$? (or might there be some issue that in $V[G]$ the constant symbol $c$ has an interpretation different from $M$?)

(2) If (1) has a positive answer, is it really sensible to say that it is consistent with $\mathsf{ZFC}$ that $M$ satisfies $\sigma$ or does this not make sense because $M$ is some fixed set that may not be definable via set-theoretical language?

(3) What if we replace $M$ by a whole subclass of $S \subseteq V$ (for instance, instead of the singleton class containing $M$, we do the above process for the class $S$ of all partially ordered sets). Using the Compactness Theorem, can we say that it is consistent with $\mathsf{ZFC}$ that every $M \in S$ satisfies $\sigma$?

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  1. $\mathsf{ZFC}\models \sigma(M)$ doesn't even make sense. As you allude to in your second question, $M$ is some set in some model, it's not something we've defined in the language of set theory.
  2. Again, mixing up semantics and syntax.
  3. If the class is definable without parameters, it makes sense to ask if it's consistent with $\sf ZFC$ that every member of the class is countable. For example, it's not consistent that every partially ordered set is countable, since we can prove in $\sf ZFC$ that there are uncountable partially ordered sets. But when we're talking about defined examples (as we could equally well do in the case of a single set), we run into the problem that the definition may not refer to the same set or class in the forcing extension. For instance, it's certainly inconsistent with $\sf ZFC$ that the reals are countable. If we take a model $V$ and look at $\mathbb R^V\in V,$ we can find a forcing extension where $V[G]\models \sigma(\mathbb R^V),$ but that forcing extension will not have $V[G]\models \mbox{"$\mathbb R^V$ are the real numbers"},$ i.e. $\mathbb R^V\ne \mathbb R^{V[G]}.$