Can we solve this strange functional equation? $$ f(x+i\epsilon)-f(x-i\epsilon) = g(x) $$
I believe that the solution is the Hilbert (finite part) transform of the function g(x) however I do not know it exactly.
I had thought taking in both sides the Fourier transform in tihs case i believe that $$2 i F(p)\sin(p\epsilon)=G(p)$$ so from this algebraic equation we could evaluate $f(x)$.
Since $f$ cannot be continuous along the real line, the $f(x+i\epsilon)$ and $f(x-i\epsilon)$ probably should be not-necessarily-related functions. Thus, if $g(x)=\lim_{\epsilon\rightarrow 0^+} f(x+i\epsilon)+F(x-i\epsilon)$ with $f$ holomorphic on the upper half-plane and $F$ holomorphic on the lower, we are expressing $g$ as a hyperfunction, by definition. (This connects to the Riemann-Hilbert business, also.)
Or, for real-valued $g$, we might require that $f$ be the real part of a holomorphic function, and then the Hilbert transform of $g$ (under various hypotheses) would be the imaginary part. This is obviously related to the previous, but the goals may be different.