This is from a solution to a problem (3b here). I can't understand why the highlighted parts are equal. I've figured out that $\sum_{i=a}^b i$ is the same as $\sum_{i=1}^{b-a+1} (i+b-a)$. The bounds on the second sum agree with that.
$b$ and $1$ (in the numerator) are constants and may be pulled out of the sum (like $\frac1{b-a+1}$ was), but why have they disappeared altogether? And why has $k$ changed sign?
I think the highlighted part should become $\sum_{ k= 1}^{b-a} (b-k+1+a)$.
What am I missing here?
Thank you in advance.

There is property of change of order of the sum $(1)$ $$\sum^{b}_{k=a}f(k)=f(a)+f(a+1)+\cdots+f(b)=$$ $$= f(b)+f(b-1)+\cdots+f(a)=\sum_{k=a}^bf(b+a-k) $$
And other that helps is $(2)$ $$(2)\sum^{b}_{k=a}f(k)=\sum^{b+p}_{k=a+p}f(k-p) $$
$$(1)\sum^{b}_{k=a}f(k)=\sum_{k=a}^bf(b+a-k) .$$
First apply the property $(2)$, subtracting $a$ from the limits
$$\sum^{b}_{k=a+1}(b-k+1)=\sum^{b-a}_{k=1}(b-(a+k)+1)= \sum^{b-a}_{k=1}(b-a+1-k)$$
Then we use the property $(1)$ to change the order $$=\sum^{b-a}_{k=1}k. $$