I have the following sequence, \begin{align*} P_n=\displaystyle \cfrac{1}{n^2}{\prod_{k=1}^{n}(n^2+k^2)^\frac{1}{n}} \:\:\:\: \:\: n\geq 1 \end{align*} The sequence seems to converge toward zero. But I have a hard time proving it. My strategy is to use a the following theorem.
Theorem. If $a_n ≥ 0 $ for all $n ≥ 1$, then the infinite product $\displaystyle\prod_{n=1}^{\infty} (1 + a_n)$ converges if and only if the infinite series $\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^{\infty} a_n$ converges.
I am trying to decompose the product in partial sums but the $k$ is giving me trouble. Any thoughts would be appreciated
Hint:
$$P_n = \left (\prod_{k=1}^n(1+(k/n)^2)\right)^{1/n}.$$