Assume $L_1$ and $L_2$ two regular languages, and $L_1\subseteq L\subseteq L_2$. Does this imply that $L$ is a regular language?
Thanks in advance.
2026-03-26 02:34:54.1774492494
Subset of regular languages
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Let $L_1=\emptyset$, $L_2=\Sigma^*$. I think not.