I need to determine whether the surface whose equation is $xy - y (logz) +sin(xz) = 0 $ can be represented in the form $z= f(x,y)$ near $(0,2,1)$ using implicit function theorem. Assume $f$ to be a smooth function.
If I apply Implicit function theorem here and calculate the $M(x,y,z)$ matrix formed by differentiating the function $xy - y (logz) +sin(xz) = f(x,y,z)$ with respect to $z$ then at $(0,2,1)$, I am getting this matrix to be invertible. Is this sufficient to show the required condition?
Let's see (from Wikipedia):
$f$ is continuously differentiable? Yes. Derivative matrix of $f$ is invertible? Yes.
Looks like you're covered.