This is an elementary question but somehow I am having a hard time seeing it. Can someone post a step by step why is it that:
$$\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k>j} \ (1) = \sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k=j+1}^n (1) = \binom{n}{2} = \frac{1}{2} n(n-1)$$
Also could someone post a link to a pdf or a website where I can practice these? I looked online but could only find examples of cases where $n<10$.
$$\sum_{j=1}^n \sum_{k=j+1}^n 1=\sum_{j=1}^n (n-j)=n\sum_{j=1}^n 1-\sum_{j=1}^n j=n^2-\frac{1}{2} n (n+1)=\frac{1}{2} (n-1) n$$