Question:
Is it true that if for functions $f,g$ which map naturals to naturals
For all natural numbers n, we have $f(n)=g(n) \iff$ for all natural numbers n we have $\sum\limits_{\mathbb{d|n}}{f(d)}=\sum\limits_{\mathbb{d|n}}{g(d)}$?
Do divisor sums have this injective like quality on functions on the natural numbers?
I think there may be some counter example. Note that if we impose that $f(1)=g(1)$ we also get that these functions agree on atleast all primes. And then if we also ask $f,g$ are multiplicative then we are done. So there should be some counterexample if we don't get all of these convenient restrictions. Right?
My Motives:
My interest in divisor sums comes out of exploring the number of integer solutions on hyperspheres. Let $\phi(n,r)$ be the number of integer solutions of $\sum\limits_{i=1}^n x_i^2=r$.
Then $\phi(2,r)=4\sum\limits_{d|r}\chi(d)$ where $\chi (x)=sin(\frac{\pi x}{2})=\cases{ 1\text{ when }x\cong 1 \text{ mod }4 \\ -1 \text{ when }x\cong 3 \text{ mod }4 \\ 0 \text{ when } 2|x }$
And $\phi(4,r)=8\sum\limits_{d|r}\psi(d)$ where $\psi (x)=\cases{x \text{ when }x\ncong 0 \text{ mod }4 \\ 0 \text{ when }x\cong 0 \text{ mod }4 }$
So this explains my motivations in exploring divisor sums.
Bonus Question
As a bonus question I am asking for leads on theta series. What else is known about $\phi(n,r)$? Is there an explicit formula for other $n$? Is there an explicit formula in $n$ and $r$?
It's a straightforward strong induction, using the fact that if $d\mid n$ and $d\not=n$, then $d\lt n$.
To get started, we have
$$f(1)=\sum_{d\mid1}f(d)=\sum_{d\mid1}g(d)=g(1)$$
Now if $f(k)=g(k)$ for all $k\lt n$, then
$$f(n)=\sum_{d\mid n}f(d)-\sum_{d\mid n,d\lt n}f(d)=\sum_{d\mid n}g(d)-\sum_{d\mid n,d\lt n}g(d)=g(n)$$