If the statment is false (give a counter-exemple), else if the statment is true (Prove it);
Let $f:\mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ and $g:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$. If $f$ and $g$ are both uniformly continuous and $\lambda \in \mathbb{R}$
$(1)$ $h(x) = f(x) + \lambda g(x)$ is uniformly continuous for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$.
For $(1)$ i imagine that (for a supoused $\epsilon_{f+g} > 0$) somehow $\delta_f$ sum with $\lambda \delta_g$ does´t change the uniformity of the function... well i don´t know if this idea make sense and i'm having troubles formalizing it (with $\epsilon$ and $\delta$). Maybe someone has a clearer and more formalized idea that can help me.
If $\lambda=0$, then the statement is trivial. I will assume that $\lambda\neq0$.
Take $\varepsilon>0$. There is a $\delta_1>0$ such that$$\lvert y-x\rvert<\delta_1\implies\bigl\lvert f(y)-f(x)\bigr\rvert<\frac\varepsilon2$$and there is a $\delta_2>0$ such that$$\lvert y-x\rvert<\delta_1\implies\bigl\lvert g(y)-g(x)\bigr\rvert<\frac\varepsilon{2\lvert\lambda\rvert}.$$So, if $\delta=\min\{\delta_1,\delta_2\}$,\begin{align}\lvert y-x\rvert<\delta&\implies\lvert y-x\rvert<\delta_1\text{ and }\lvert y-x\rvert<\delta_2\\&\implies\bigl\lvert\bigl(f(y)+\lambda g(y)\bigr)-\bigl(f(x)+\lambda g(x)\bigr)\bigr\rvert<\varepsilon.\end{align}