Let $1\geq x_{1}\geq x_2\geq\cdots\geq x_{n}\geq0$, and $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}=1$. then what is the maximal value of ? $$\sum_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}^{2}\sum_{k=1}^{n}kx_{k} .$$
I think, Maybe we could try Rearrangement inequality
or
let $x_n=a_n,x_{n-1}=a_n+a_{n-1} , \dotsc, x_1=a_1+a_2+\dotsc+a_n$
where $a_i\geq0$
I am really grateful for any help
EDIT: I am very sorry, $1$ is not the upper bound for all $n$, but I guess $\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}x_{k}^{2}\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n}kx_{k}\lt2 .$
For $n=5$ $$x_1=0.926599, x_2=x_3=x_4=x_5=0.0183503$$ LHS $=1.01773\gt 1$
This is not a complete answer, but is slightly too long for the usual comment format. Below is a proof for $n=3$ (which implies the result for any $n\leq 3$).
Following the suggestion in Winther’s comment, let us that $\delta\geq 0$, where
$$ \delta=(x_1+x_2+x_3)^3-(x_1^2+x_2^2+x_3^2)(x_1+2x_2+3x_3) \tag{1} $$
If we put $d_i=x_i-x_{i+1} (i=1,2)$, we have $d_i\geq 0$. The result then follows from
$$ \delta=x_2(x_1^2+x_2(x_1+d_1))+x_3(6x_1x_2+x_3(x_1+d_1+2d_2)) \tag{2} $$
Note that equality is reached exactly when $x_2=x_3=0$.