I'm currently looking at my teacher's document about convergence but there is something I just can't figure out on my own for some reason.
Here is what he wrote
$$\sum_{n=N}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n =(\frac{1}{e})^N\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n$$
And I'm trying to see if my reasonning holds:
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^N = -[1 + (\frac{1}{e})^1 + (\frac{1}{e})^2 + ... + (\frac{1}{e})^(N-1) ] + \sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n $$ hence
$$\sum_{n=N}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^(n + N) $$
(because if we start the summation at $n=0$ then we get $ N, (N+1), (N+2)...$ which are the exponents of $\sum_{n=N}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n$ )
Therefore $$\sum_{n=N}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^(n + N) = \sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n(\frac{1}{e})^N $$ where $N$ is a constant independant of $n$ which leads to
$$\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n(\frac{1}{e})^N = (\frac{1}{e})^N\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n $$ So $$\sum_{n=N}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n =(\frac{1}{e})^N\sum_{n=0}^\infty (\frac{1}{e})^n$$
However is there a simpler way to see it. Like more intuitive or more direct.. because this result isn't intuitive to me.
Thank you in advance!
Let $k = n-N$ then $n=N \iff k=0$ and $n \to \infty \iff k \to \infty$. Substituting $n=k+N$:
$$\sum_{n=N}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^n = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^{k+N} = \sum_{k=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^k\left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^N = \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^N\sum_{k=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^k$$
Since the summation index is a dummy variable, we can revert it to $n$:
$$ \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^N\sum_{k=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^k = \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^N\sum_{n=0}^\infty \left(\frac{1}{e}\right)^n $$