A very quick background - I'm a programmer by trade that has decided to try and properly relearn the math I never fully grasped 10 years ago in school. I can "perform calculations", and am rather proficient at fortran, but at no point would I ever claim that I have any mathematical maturity. My current goal is remedy that. I'm currently working my through Apostol's Calculus, and finding it remarkable. However, there are a few problems I run in to where I'm struggling to understand the proper way to "look" at something - sometimes the proofs seem almost too easy and it feels as if I'm doing these wrong.
This is probably the simplest question ever asked on this board, but it's important to me. This question is in an unanswered Problem set, and I want to make sure I understand it correctly. Thanks in advance for taking the time.
Prove: $$\sum_{k=1}^n1 = n$$ Beginning: $$\sum_{k=1}^n1 = \sum_{k=1}^na_k$$ where each $a_k = 1$. We would like to utilize the Telescopic Property to simplify the sum. By the Telescopic Property: $\sum_{k=1}^n(a_k - a_{k-1}) = a_n - a_0$, let us rewrite $$\sum_{k=1}^n=a_k$$ to $$\sum_{k=1}^n(1-(1-1)) = \sum_{k=1}^n(1 - 0)$$ giving $$\sum_{k=1}^x(1-0) = n - 0 = n$$
Is this correct? My confusion comes from the term $a_0$. From my programming background, everything is zero indexed so I'm having a hard time reconciling $a_0$ with being zero in this case. I've spent several hours re-reading the previous pages in the textbook, and subscripts of zero aren't used . . . everything starts with an index of 1 (I'm assuming because we are dealing with the inductive set only at this time). Thanks!
Part of the proof seems to be confused (or something different is about to be shown). To make use of the telescoping property $$ \sum_{k=1}^n 1 = \sum_{k=1}^n (a_k-a_{k-1})=a_n-a_0,$$ you should not have $a_k=1$, but rather $a_k-a_{k-1}=1$. For example if we let $a_k=k+42$ for all $k$, then we indeed get $a_k-a_{k-1}=1$ for all $k$ and find quite unsurprisingly that $$ \sum_{k=1}^n 1=a_n-a_0=(n+42)-42=n.$$