suppose $\sum a_n$ converges. Is it true that then $\sum (-1)^na_n$ will also converge.
I think that the statement is true but I'm having trouble proving it.
suppose $\sum a_n$ converges. Is it true that then $\sum (-1)^na_n$ will also converge.
I think that the statement is true but I'm having trouble proving it.
No, this is in general wrong. Consider for instance $a_n = \frac{(-1)^n}{n}$.