Suppose $x_n > 0\ \forall n\in\mathbb{N},\ $ and $\displaystyle\sum_n x_n $ converges.
Proposition: $\ \forall \varepsilon>0,\ \exists\ N,\ \exists\ M\in [N,N^2]\ $ such that $\frac{x_M}{x_N} < \varepsilon.$
Does replacing $[N,N^2]\ $ by $[1, N^2]$ make things significantly easier? I doubt it.
Note that the proposition would be false if we replaced $[N,N^2]$ with $[N,2N]\ $ or $\ [N,3N]\ $ etc, for then $x_n = \frac{1}{n^2}$ would be a counterexample.
My first thought then was to try $x_n = \frac{1}{n\log^2{n}}\ $ as this is one of the most slowly converging sequences (whose series converges) that I have in my arsenal. But this is not a counter-example, since for all $\varepsilon,\ $ if $\ M=N^2, $ then $ \frac{x_{M}}{{x_N}} = \frac{\log^2{N}}{N\log^2(N^2)} \to 0,\ $ and so there exists a large $N$ that satisfies $\frac{x_M}{x_N} < \varepsilon.$
Of course, I don't know the answer to this question. I'm more interested in the tools and strategies needed to answer such a question. How advanced are these types of problems?
Is the same question but with $\ [N,2^N]\ $ or $\ [1, 2^N]\ $ in place of $[N,N^2]$ simpler to solve, or do some or all these questions have non-standard counterexamples as answers?
Edit: the contrapositive of the original statement is:
Suppose $x_n > 0\ \forall\ n\in\mathbb{N}.\ $ If $\ \exists\ \varepsilon>0\ $ such that $\ n,\ m\in [n, n^2] \implies \frac{x_m}{x_n} \geq \varepsilon,\ $ then $\ \displaystyle\sum_n x_n\ $ diverges. If we assume $\ \exists\ \varepsilon>0\ $ such that $\ n,\ m\in [n, n^2] \implies \frac{x_m}{x_n} \geq \varepsilon,\ $ then we have: $x_1 \geq \varepsilon x_1 (\implies \varepsilon\leq 1),\ \ x_4\geq \varepsilon x_2,\ \ x_3\geq \varepsilon x_2,\ \ x_3\geq \varepsilon x_2,\ \ x_9\geq \varepsilon x_3,\ \ x_8\geq \varepsilon x_3,\ \ \ldots,\ x_4 \geq \varepsilon x_3, \ \ x_3 \geq \varepsilon x_3,\ \ldots.$
Can we prove the sum of such a sequence diverges?
The original statement is true. By contradiction: