Is the following proposition true, and if so, how can it be proven? I cannot find a counter-example.
Proposition: Suppose $\ (x_n)_n\ $ is a non-decreasing sequence of natural numbers, and $\ x_{x_n} \neq x_n\ \forall n\in\mathbb{N}.\ $ Then, $\ \displaystyle\sum_n \frac{1}{x_{x_n} - x_n}\ $ diverges $\ \iff \displaystyle\sum_n \frac{1}{x_n}\ $ diverges.
Note: if we did not require $\ (x_n)_n\ $ to be non-decreasing, then $\ 2, 10, 4, 100, 6, 1000, 8, 10000, 12, 100000,\ldots\ $ would be a counterexample.
It seems that $\ x_n = \left\lfloor (n+1)\log(n+1)\right\rfloor $ is a counterexample.