Let $A, B$ be subsets of positive real numbers that are bounded above,
and let $A\cdot B=\{ a b : a\in A, b\in B\}$.
Show that
$$
\sup (A\cdot B) = \sup A \sup B.
$$
Proof:
This is obvious. It is clear that for the set $A \cdot B$, $\sup A \sup B$ is an upper bound, as $\alpha\beta \geq ab$, $\forall ab \in A \cdot B$. Now we just need show that $\alpha \beta$ is the smallest such bound. Let $\epsilon_1 > 0$, Let $\epsilon_2 = \alpha \epsilon_1 + \beta \epsilon_1 + \epsilon_1^2$. It's clear that $a > \alpha - \epsilon_1$ and $b> \beta-\epsilon_1$ for some $a \in A$ and some $b \in B$ Thus $(\alpha-\epsilon_1)(\beta-\epsilon_1) = \alpha\beta - \epsilon_2 < ab$ for some $ab \in A \cdot B$. Ergo, $\alpha \beta$ is the smallest such upper bound and thus $$ \sup (A\cdot B) = \sup A \sup B $$
Is this a valid proof? I've been debating this with a friend of mine for the past half and hour..
$\def\epsilon{\varepsilon}$I find the logic rather confusing in your proof. My problem is that you need to show that $A\cdot B$ contains an element greater than $\alpha\beta-\epsilon$ for every $\epsilon>0$. That is, given $\epsilon>0$, you need to find $a\in A$ and $b\in B$ in terms of $\epsilon,\alpha$ and $\beta$, such that $$ab>\alpha\beta-\epsilon\ .$$ You say "it's clear that $a>\alpha-\epsilon_1$", but it's not at all clear to me, since you have not said what $a$ is!
You could try something like this. Let $\epsilon>0$. Since $\alpha,\beta$ are the suprema of $A,B$ respectively, there exist $a\in A$ and $b\in B$ such that $$a>\alpha-\frac{\epsilon}{2\beta}\ ,\quad b>\beta-\frac{\epsilon}{2\alpha}\ ;$$ Then $$ab>\alpha\beta-\frac\epsilon2-\frac\epsilon2+\frac{\epsilon^2}{4\alpha\beta} >\alpha\beta-\epsilon\ .$$ Note that if $\epsilon$ is large, these inequalities could involve negative numbers and may no longer be correct. This is "not a problem" since we are really interested only in small $\epsilon$; but if you want a really watertight proof you would have to write it down more carefully.