I have these two polar curves:
$$ C_1: r = 2 - \cos(\theta)\\ C_2: r = 3 \cos(\theta) $$
Plots: C1 and C2.
I need to find the surface of $D = C_1 \cap C_2$.
I started by finding the solution to $C_1 = C_2$. I found $\pm \pi\over{3}$.
I tried this integral:
$$ \int_{-\pi\over{3}}^{\pi\over{3}} \int_{3\cos(\theta)}^{2-\cos(\theta)} r \;\operatorname d\!r \operatorname d\!\theta $$
However, I'm not sure about that $r$, and I get a negative answer.
I'd appreciate if someone could point me in the right direction!

For $-\frac{\pi}{3} \le \theta \le \frac{\pi}{3}$, we have $3\cos \theta \ge 2-\cos\theta$, and so, your integral yields a negative value.
Draw both graphs on the same region. You'll see that $\theta$ can range from $-\frac{\pi}{2}$ to $\frac{\pi}{2}$.
If $0 \le |\theta| \le \frac{\pi}{3}$, and the point $(r,\theta)$ is in $D$, then we must have $0 \le r \le 2-\cos \theta$.
If $\frac{\pi}{3} \le |\theta| \le \frac{\pi}{2}$, and the point $(r,\theta)$ is in $D$, then we must have $0 \le r \le 3\cos \theta$.
So, the area should be $\displaystyle 2\int_{0}^{\pi/3}\int_{0}^{2-\cos\theta}r\,dr\,d\theta + 2\int_{\pi/3}^{\pi/2}\int_{0}^{3\cos\theta}r\,dr\,d\theta$.
Note: I have exploited symmetry about the $x$-axis, which is why I only integrated over $0 \le \theta \le \frac{\pi}{2}$ and multiplied the result by $2$.