Is it true that a map between ${\bf T1}$ topological spaces $f:X \to Y$ is surjective iff the induced geometric morphism $f:Sh(Y) \to Sh(X)$ is a surjection (i.e. its inverse image part $f^*$ is faithful)?
In "Sheaves in Geometry and Logic" a proof is given, but the the "if" part leaves me a bit unsatisfied (and, btw, the "only if" part holds for any topological space). Thanks in advance!
I think you want $Sh(Y) \rightarrow Sh(X)$ to be an injection not a surjection, otherwise take $Y = pt$, we're saying all the sheaves on everything are constant!
Let's consider sheaves of abelian groups, just to make faithfulness easier to think about.
Well, if $X \rightarrow Y$ is not surjective, take a skyscraper on a point not in image, it should pull back to zero. (this is where you use $T_0$, btw, to conclude all the stalks away from the point are 0).
If $X \rightarrow Y$ is surjective, then since the stalk of $f^* \mathcal{F}$ at $x$ is the stalk of $\mathcal{F}$ at $f(x)$, if $f^* \mathcal{F}$ is 0, all the stalks of $\mathcal{F}$ are 0 i.e. its zero.