Almost a year ago I asked the question: How to differentiate $e^x$? And in the accepted answer, the following equality appeared:
$$\lim_{h\to 0}\lim_{n\to \infty}\frac {(1+1/n)^{hn}-1}{h}=\lim_{n\to\infty}\lim_{h\to 0}\frac {(1+1/n)^{hn}-1}{h}$$
What allows one to switch limits in this case?
For a sequence of continuous functions $f_n(x),$ $$\lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} f_n(x) = \lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} \lim_{x \rightarrow x_0} f_n(x)$$ is the same as saying that the pointwise limit of $f_n$ is continuous. The usual criterion is for $(f_n)_n$ to converge uniformly on compact intervals.
Once you have agreed that $\lim_{h \rightarrow 0} \frac{(1 + 1/n)^{nh} - 1}{h}$ exists for all $n$, and that the results are bounded in $n$, you can conclude that the sequence is uniformly bounded and equicontinuous and you can apply Arzela-Ascoli's theorem.