Hi guys i need to help with this excercises. :)
If $$\begin{cases} x=r\cos \theta\\ y=r \sin\theta \end{cases}$$ prove that the equation: $$x^2\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial x^2}+2xy\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial x\partial y}+y^2\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial y^2}=0$$ is equivalent to $$r^2\frac{\partial^2z}{\partial \theta^2}=0.$$
OK I´VE TRIED
this could be helpful ? then, what do i make?
I tried of isolate $\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}$ and $\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}$
$$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}cos\theta-\frac{\partial z}{\partial \theta}(\frac{1}{r})sin\theta$$and $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial \theta}(\frac{1}{r})cos\theta+\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}sin\theta$$
mm and we know that $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial r}=\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}cos\theta+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}sin\theta$$ $$\frac{\partial z}{\partial \theta}=-\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}rsin\theta+\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}rcos\theta$$
but I do not get anything.
How can I do to get the result?? help.

In the formula for $\partial z\over\partial\theta$, replace the function $z$ with $\partial z\over\partial x$, then with $\partial z\over\partial y$, and finally with $\partial z\over\partial\theta$. The resulting three equations can be combined to get the result you want.