Define a function $f(\alpha, \beta)$, $\alpha \in (-1,1)$, $\beta \in (-1,1)$ as
$$ f(\alpha, \beta) = \int_0^{\infty} dx \: \frac{x^{\alpha}}{1+2 x \cos{(\pi \beta)} + x^2}$$
One can use, for example, the Residue Theorem to show that
$$ f(\alpha, \beta) = \frac{\pi \sin{\left (\pi \alpha \beta\right )}}{ \sin{\left (\pi \alpha\right )} \, \sin{\left (\pi \beta\right )}} $$
Clearly, from this latter expression, $f(\alpha, \beta) = f(\beta, \alpha)$. My question is, can one see this symmetry directly from the integral expression?
Not an answer, but a reply to Maesumi's comment --
Invariance under $\alpha \to -\alpha$ is not so difficult to see: let $x=y^{-1}$, then \begin{align*}\int_0^{\infty} \frac{x^{\alpha}}{1+2x\cos(\pi \beta) + x^2} dx &= \int_{\infty}^0 \frac{y^{-\alpha} }{1+2y^{-1}\cos(\pi\beta)+y^{-2}}(-y^{-2})dy\\ &=\int_0^{\infty} \frac{y^{-\alpha}}{1+2y\cos(\pi \beta) + y^2} dy. \end{align*}
No idea about $\alpha \leftrightarrow \beta$ though.