There's a question in Lee's Introduction to Smooth Manifold that asks to prove that the Grassmannian product of a symplectic form is not exact. However, isn't this incorrect if there exists a tautological 1-form on the manifold ?
2026-03-26 16:09:51.1774541391
symplectic form, tautological 1-form and DeRham cohomology
115 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtRelated Questions in SYMPLECTIC-GEOMETRY
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