Systematic way to find the 1-form of the spin connection?

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I'm currently reading Nakahara's book "Geometry, Topology and Physics, 2nd Edition". Section 7.8 discusses Cartan's structure equations, which can be expressed, for a torsion free connection, as: $$de^a + \omega^a_{\ \ b}\wedge e^b=0$$ where $\omega^a_{\ \ b}$ is the spin connection 1-form and $e^a$ are the 1-form vierbeins for the metric.

Then, he gives a simple example (Example 7.14.) in which he calculates the connection for the case of a sphere $S^2$: $$ds^2 = d\theta^2 + \sin^2\theta d\phi^2$$ in this case we have: $$e^1 = d\theta\qquad e^2=\sin\theta d\phi$$ so the Cartan's first equation reads as: $$\begin{align} \sin\theta\omega^1_{\ \ 2}\wedge d\phi &=0\\ \cos\theta d\theta\wedge d\phi + \omega^2_{\ \ 1}\wedge d\theta&=0 \end{align}$$ Of course from the second one, we can immediately infer $\omega^2_{\ \ 1}=\cos\theta d\phi$ and then, by antisymmetry, $\omega^1_{\ \ 2}=-\cos\theta d\phi$.

Okay, in this case it's very simple and we can find it with the naked eye, but what if the form of the metric is more complicated? In that case we'll have a larger number of terms, possibly with crossed coordinates, and we'll need another method to solve it.

For example, if we have something like: $$ds^2 = -e^{2f(\rho)}dt^2+d\rho^2+\alpha_1^2(\rho)\left(d\theta^2+\sin^2\theta d\phi^2 \right)+\alpha_2^2(\rho)\left(d\bar{\theta}^2+\sin^2\bar{\theta} d\bar{\phi}^2 \right)+\alpha_3^2(\rho)\left(d\tilde{\theta}^2+\sin^2\tilde{\theta} d\tilde{\phi}^2 \right)$$ the first Cartan equation involves a sum of about 8 terms (see the imagen below), we can't act like the previous example. Would there be any systematic way to calculate it?

First Cartan's equations for given metric

where I've introduced the Maurer-Cartan 1-forms $\sigma_{1}=\sin \theta d \phi, \quad \sigma_{2}=d \theta, \quad \sigma_{3}=\cos \theta d \phi$

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I'll show you a simpler example (with only 4 variables, not 8). Writing out all those equations is not informative. You have to think about what the basis $2$-forms are. Remember that the connection forms will satisfy $\omega^i_j = -\omega^j_i$ and $\omega^0_j = \omega^j_0$ for $i,j\ge 1$. (In particular, $\omega^i_i = 0$ for all $i\ge 1$.) Since \begin{align*} e^0 &= e^{f(\rho)}dt \\ e^1 &= d\rho \\ e^2 &= \alpha(\rho)d\theta \\ e^3 &= \alpha(\rho)\sin\theta\,d\phi, \end{align*} we begin by differentiating. \begin{align*} de^0 &= e^{f(\rho)}f'(\rho)\,d\rho\wedge dt \\ de^1 &= 0 \\ de^2 &= \alpha'(\rho)\,d\rho\wedge d\theta \\ de^3 &= \alpha'(\rho)\sin\theta\,d\rho\wedge d\phi+\alpha(\rho)\cos\theta\,d\theta\wedge d\phi. \end{align*}

Let's just start with the obvious. For $de^0$, we need the $e^1$ term: $$e^{f(\rho)}f'(\rho)\,d\rho\wedge dt = -e^{f(\rho)}f'(\rho)\,dt\wedge d\rho = -e^{f(\rho)}f'(\rho)\,dt\wedge e^1,$$ and so $\color{red}{\omega^0_1 = e^{f(\rho)}f'(\rho)\,dt}$ (and $\omega^0_j$ for $j>1$ will all turn out to be $0$ by symmetry).

From $de^1=0$, we see that $\omega^1_0 = \omega^0_1$ is indeed a multiple of $e^0$. $\omega^1_2 = -\omega^2_1$ and $\omega^1_3=-\omega^3_1$ will be decided momentarily.

From $de^2=\alpha'(\rho)d\rho\wedge d\theta$, we infer that $\color{red}{\omega^2_1=\alpha'(\rho)d\theta}$. Moreover, $\omega^2_0=0$ since no $dt$ appears.

Now it gets a bit more interesting. We have $de^3 = \alpha'(\rho)\sin\theta\,d\rho\wedge d\phi + \alpha(\rho)\cos\theta\,d\theta\wedge d\phi$, and so we see $e^1$ and $e^2$ appearing. Indeed, from $$de^3 = -\omega^3_1\wedge e^1 - \omega^3_2\wedge e^2$$ we see that $\color{red}{\omega^3_1 = \alpha'(\rho)\sin\theta\,d\phi}$ and $\color{red}{\omega^3_2 = \cos\theta\,d\phi}$. Note that $\omega^3_1$ and $\omega^3_2$ are both multiples of $e^3$, so that $\omega^1_3\wedge e^3 = \omega^2_3\wedge e^3 = 0$, as needed, and, indeed, no more terms show up in $de^1$ and $de^2$. Note that, once again, no $dt$ appears, and so $\omega^3_0 = 0$.

All the connection forms are now determined.

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I will try to answer it as clear and concise as posible, using what I think is a more intuitive notation. \begin{equation} 0 \rightarrow t,\ 1 \rightarrow \rho,\ 2 \rightarrow 2,\ 3\rightarrow 1,\ 4\rightarrow\bar{2},\ 5\rightarrow\bar{1},\ 6\rightarrow\tilde{2},\ 7\rightarrow\tilde{1} \end{equation} From the equation where $a=t$, one can deduce that $\omega_\rho^t=f'e^f dt$, which also cancels out one term in $a=\rho$, and that $\omega^t_a$ should be $0$ for every numerical a.

One can also see easily that the $\omega^r_a$ terms must compensate the term that shows up when differenciating the $\alpha(\rho)$ in $de^a$,taking the form of $\omega^\rho_a=\alpha'(\rho)\cdot\sigma^b$ where $b=1$ when $a=2$ and so on. This can be applied to every 2-sphere indices. It is also compatible with the $a=\rho$ equation.

In order to counter the $d\sigma^a$ term in the $a=$"a number", you can set $\omega_2^1=\sigma^3$.

The other components of the 1-form are $0$. I will not discuss this part of the problem in detail because it is trivial when you assume that they can be built by a linear combination of $dt$, $d\rho$ and the Maurer-Cartan 1-forms (or other 1-forms involved in your definition of the space), which is something aproximating a general way to find the 1-form of spin, at least in relatively simple cases from my experience.