I have just started on chapter for partial derivative and I have a very basic question: Please go easy on me since I just started on the topic today.
Let the function be:
$$z=F\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)$$
I am wondering if the reasoning of mine is correct.
$$\frac{\partial z}{\partial x}=\frac{F'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)}{y}$$ now what I am intrested to know is the logic behind it.
I use the chain rule:
$$F'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)* ?$$ here is the question: Do I leave $$\frac{1}{y}$$ and differentiate x which is equal to 1.
Second part which obviously is just as easy when you get the hang of it:
$$\frac{\partial z}{\partial y}=-\frac{x F'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)}{y^2}$$
I use the same logic:
Chain rule:
$$F'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)* ?$$
now I leave $$\frac{x}{1}$$
And differentiate $$\frac{1}{y}$$
$$F'\left(\frac{x}{y}\right)*x*\frac{-1}{y^2}$$
Is my logic correct or is it something I am missing?
Your answers are fine. The chain rule gives us $$\frac{\partial}{\partial x} f(g(x,y)) = f'(g(x,y))\cdot \frac{\partial g}{\partial x} $$The only real work is the second piece. In calculating $\frac{\partial g}{\partial x}$ we treat anything which does not depend on $x$ as a constant. So $$\frac{\partial }{\partial x} \frac{x}{y} = \frac{1}{y}$$
In the same way that
$$\frac{d }{d x} \frac{x}{2} = \frac{1}{2}$$