Let $M$ and $N$ be smooth manifolds with $S\subseteq N$ a submanifold, and assume a map $f:M\to N$ is smooth and transverse to $S$. Prove that $T_p(f^{-1}(S)) = (df_p)^{-1}(T_{f(p)}S)$ for some $p\in f^{-1}(S)$.
I have found two instances of this question asked here and here, but neither question is given a complete solution (and the OPs seem satisfied with their hints).
I thought that the answer would be a simple unwinding of the definitions of $df_p$ and $T_xM$, but I wasn't able to push it through. It would be most helpful if the definition of $T_xM$ used was the set of derivations, and not the "use a path" definition. This is the definition that was emphasized most in my course, and is the one I am most comfortable with.
This is not homework -- I'm just trying to study for an exam.
I don't currently see a simple "definition-chase" unwinding that doesn't essentially go through the proof that $f^{-1}S$ is a submanifold of $M$, so I'll give a proof of this fact that way, and if I am missing something simpler perhaps someone else can supply it.
In order to show that $f^{-1}S$ is a submanifold, one idea (see this Math:SE question for instance) is to begin with a submersion $\psi: V \to \mathbb{R}^{n-s}$, where $V$ is a neighborhood of $f(p)$ in $N$, such that $S \cap V$ is the preimage $\psi^{-1}(0)$. Such a submersion exists because $S$ is an embedded submanifold.
Note that $T_{f(p)} S = \ker d\psi$.
Using transversiality, you can show that $0$ is a regular value of $\psi f$. (See the argument at the link, for example.)
It follows there's a neighborhood $U \subseteq f^{-1}(V)$ of $p$ such that $\psi f: U \to \mathbb{R}^{n-s}$ is a submersion. From this we see that $(f^{-1}S) \cap U = (\psi f)^{-1}(0)$ is a submanifold, and furthermore $$ T_p (f^{-1}S) = \ker d(\psi f) . $$ But $$ \ker d(\psi f) = \ker d\psi \, df = (df)^{-1} \big(\ker d\psi \big) = (df)^{-1}\big( T_{f(p)} S \big). $$