Let $G\subset GL(n)$ be a Lie subgroup and denote $$ M:=G x_0 = \{ Ax_0\ :\ A\in G\}\subset \mathbb R^n,$$ where $x_0\ne 0$ is a fixed vector in $\mathbb R^n$. Then $M$ is a smooth submanifold of $\mathbb R^n$.
Question. Is it true that $$\tag{1}A(T_{x_0} M)=T_{Ax_0} M,\qquad \forall A\in G\ ?$$
At first sight I would say that (1) is true. However, if the Lie algebra $\mathfrak g$ is given by $$\mathfrak g = \text{span}\ (g_1, g_2\ldots g_m), $$ then $$T_{x_0} M = \text{span}\, (g_1 x_0, \ldots ,g_mx_0),$$ and analogously $$ T_{Ax_0} M=\text{span}\, (g_1 Ax_0, \ldots, g_mAx_0), $$ while $$ A(T_{x_0} M) = \text{span}\, (Ag_1 x_0, \ldots ,Ag_mx_0),$$ and I don't see a reason why the last two vector spaces should coincide. I don't know how to handle the commutators $[g_j, A]$, where $g_j\in\mathfrak g$ and $A\in G$.
The restriction $f_A$ of the map $A$ to $M$ induces a diffeomorphism of $M$, remark $df_A=A$ since $A$ is linear. We have $f_A(x_0)=A(x_0)$, and $df_A(T_{x_0}(M))=A(T_{x_0}M)=T_{f_A(x_0)}M=T_{A(x_0)}M$.