I know that in order to check if Q is a tautological consequence of P1, P2, ..., Pn I can look at the truth table.
If, wherever P1, P2, ..., Pn are true also Q is true, than Q is a tautological consequence of P1, P2, ..., Pn.
I also know that if I can't find a counterexample, that is a row of the truth table where P1, P2, ..., Pn are true and Q false, then I can assert that Q is a tautological consequence of P1, P2, ..., Pn.
I can't understand why the last thing is true. Intuitively if I can't find a counterexample, I cannot say anything, nor that it is true nor that it is false.
The problem is that my intuition is wrong.
How can I understand that fact?
Denote $\mathcal P=1$ to mean every component $P_i$ is true. We say the statements $P_1,\ldots, P_n$ tautologically imply $Q$ if and only if for every row in the truth table $$\mathcal P=1 \Rightarrow Q=1\tag{1} $$ Negate the former statement. There exists a row in the truth table satisfying $$\mathcal P=1 \quad \&\quad Q=0\tag{2} $$ To show there is no tautological implication, it suffices to show statement (2) is true (find a counterexample). If no such counterexample exists, then statement (1) must be true, but that means the statements $P_i$ tautologically imply $Q$.