Show that if $n$ is large and $ne^{-t}\ll 1$, the expression $(1-e^{-t})^n$ reduces to $1-ne^{-t}$.
I know that the Taylor expansion of $e^{-t}$ when $t$ is small is $1-t$ but I am not sure how to use this in solving the problem. Also, why is the condition $ne^{-t}\ll 1$ necessary? Any hints are appreciated. Thank you.
By the binomial expansion,
$$(1-\epsilon)^n=1-n\epsilon+\frac{n(n-1)}2\epsilon^2-\frac{n(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}\epsilon^3\cdots \\=1-n\epsilon\left(1-\frac{n-1}2\epsilon+\frac{(n-1)(n-2)}{3!}\epsilon^2\cdots\right).$$
Then iff $n\epsilon\ll 1$,
$$(1-\epsilon)^n\approx1-n\epsilon.$$
Working with $e^{-t}$ instead of $\epsilon$ is just "noise".
Additional note:
If $n\epsilon\ll 1$, then
$$1-n\epsilon\approx 1$$ and the question is a little illogical. Better to ask about
$$(1-\epsilon)^n-1.$$