The Taylor Series expansion for $\frac{1}{1-x}$ is convergent for every real number $-1 < x < 1$.
\begin{equation*} \frac{1}{1 - x} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^{n} . \end{equation*}
Since $0 \leq x^{2} < 1$ if, and only if $-1 < x < 1$, the Taylor Series expansion for $\frac{1}{1-x^{2}}$ is convergent for every real number $-1 < x < 1$.
\begin{equation*} \frac{1}{1 - x^{2}} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} x^{2n} . \end{equation*}
This is a special case of a theorem about the composition of certain functions. For example, the Taylor Series expansion for $e^{x}$ implies that
\begin{equation*} e^{x^{2}} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} \, x^{2n} \end{equation*}
and that
\begin{equation*} e^{(x-1)^2} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} \, \left((x - 1)^2\right)^{n} = \sum_{n=0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{n!} \, (x - 1)^{2n} . \end{equation*}
I am looking for the precise statement for such a theorem and a rigorous demonstration of it (or a citation for a rigorous demonstration of it).
You can substitute in another function but that might completely change the disk of convergence.
Proof: Suppose $w = g(z) \in D$, then $f \circ g(z) = f(w) = \sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j (w - z_0)^j = \sum_{j=0}^\infty a_j (g(z) - z_0)^j$.