I'm looking at a solution and I'm having a hard time understanding this equality (I'm not great at Sigma notation),
$ \sin^2(x) = \dfrac{1-\cos(2x)}{2}=\dfrac{1}{2}\left[1-\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\dfrac{(-1)^n(2x)^{2n}}{(2n)!}\right] = \dfrac{1}{2}\left[1-1-\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{(-1)^n(2x)^{2n}}{(2n)!}\right] $
It's unclear to me how to go from this
$ \dfrac{1}{2}\left[1-\displaystyle\sum_{n=0}^\infty\dfrac{(-1)^n(2x)^{2n}}{(2n)!}\right] $
to this
$ \dfrac{1}{2}\left[1-1-\displaystyle\sum_{n=1}^\infty\dfrac{(-1)^n(2x)^{2n}}{(2n)!}\right] $
We know that $$\cos (y) =\sum_{n=0}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n y^{2n}}{(2n)!}= 1-\frac{y^2}{2!}+\frac{y^4}{4!}+\ldots$$
from Taylor series of cosine.
We just replace $y=2x$.