Does the integral converge? $$\int_0^\infty (1-e^{-1/x})\,\Bbb dx$$
Idea: First I tried to expand the $e^{-1/x}$ using the Maclaurin series and evaluated the integral, but it was not a good result and then I realized the result is not correct, because we cannot expand $e^{-1/x}$ by the Maclaurin series (because all derivatives of $e^{-1/x}$ at $x=0$ are zero but $e^{-1/x}$ is not a zero function so the approximate centered at $0$ doesn’t work).
We can find the Taylor series expansion of $e^{-1/x}$ centered at some point (like $x=1$). According to that, the integral is divergent. I just want to know
- Is my understanding correct? and
- Can we expand $e^{-1/x}$ by the Taylor series centered at some point (except zero) even the function is non-analytic?
And is this the right way to evaluate this kind of integral? It will be a great pleasure to me if someone can give a little explanation.
Since we have $x\in[0,\infty)$ we can see that: $$x\to0^+,\frac1x\to+\infty\therefore e^{-1/x}\to0$$ so for small values of $x$, $1-e^{-1/x}\approx 1$. Now if we look at large values of $x$: $$x\to+\infty,\frac1x\to0^+\therefore e^{-1/x}\to1$$ and so for large values of $x$, $1-e^{-1/x}\to0$. However, $$\int_1^\infty\frac{1}{x^n}dx$$ only converges for $n>1$ so for your integral to converge you need to show that your function tends to zero faster than $1/x$, which it does not so the integral will diverge